Comprehensive examination practice covering critical developments from the week for competitive examination preparation
This comprehensive weekly assessment encompasses ten carefully curated multiple-choice questions derived from significant current affairs developments during August 3-9, 2025. Each question includes detailed analytical explanations to enhance understanding and strengthen preparation for civil services examinations.
Question 1: International Recognition Mechanisms
Regarding the Nobel Peace Prize nomination process, analyze the following statements:
Statement A: National government officials and parliamentary members possess authority to submit nominations for the Peace Prize.
Statement B: 2025 marks the inaugural year when a United States President received a Peace Prize nomination.
Statement C: Complete nomination records become publicly accessible after a 50-year confidentiality period.
How many statements are accurate?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Analysis:
White House officials announced that President Donald Trump received nominations for the Nobel Peace Prize, citing his role in resolving various international conflicts including tensions between India-Pakistan and Thailand-Cambodia. Pakistani government representatives officially submitted his nomination, praising his leadership during recent regional conflicts.
The Nobel Prize nomination system operates through qualified nominators including university professors, previous Nobel laureates, and government officials. The Norwegian Nobel Committee, comprising five members appointed by Norway’s parliament, oversees the Peace Prize selection process.
Statement A is accurate – Government heads and national assembly members can submit Peace Prize nominations. Historical precedent includes Swedish parliamentarian Erik Brandt’s 1939 nomination of Adolf Hitler, later withdrawn as satirical commentary.
The selection process involves creating shortlists, external expert consultation, and committee deliberation spanning eight months. Statement C is accurate – complete nomination lists become public after 50 years.
However, Statement B is incorrect – Theodore Roosevelt became the first US President to receive the Nobel Peace Prize in 1906 for mediating the Russo-Japanese War resolution.
Correct Answer: (b) Only two
Question 2: Scientific Applications in Conservation
Concerning radioisotopes, evaluate these statements:
Statement A: They represent unstable elemental forms that emit radiation while transforming into stable configurations.
Statement B: Research facilities and accelerators produce most radioisotopes artificially through target material exposure to high-energy particles, followed by chemical processing.
Statement C: Industrial applications effectively utilize radioisotopes across multiple sectors.
How many statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Analysis:
South African universities implemented innovative anti-poaching strategies by injecting radioactive isotopes into rhinoceros horns. This method enables customs officials to detect trafficked horns while remaining harmless to the animals.
According to the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA), radioisotopes are unstable atomic forms that emit radiation during transformation into stable states. Statement A is correct – this radiation can be tracked and causes detectable changes in exposed materials.
The rhinoceros horn protection program uses non-invasive procedures to embed low-dose radioactive isotopes, allowing detection through existing radiation portal monitors at international borders, ports, and airports designed for nuclear material identification.
Statement B is accurate – research reactors and accelerators create most radioisotopes artificially by exposing target materials to intense particles like neutrons or protons, followed by chemical processing into required forms.
Statement C is correct – radioisotopes serve multiple applications including radiopharmaceutical sciences, industrial processes, environmental monitoring, and biological research. Additional sources include radioisotope generators beyond research facilities.
Correct Answer: (c) All three
Question 3: Maritime Strategic Cooperation
Recently, three Indian Naval vessels participated in their inaugural naval exercise with the Philippines. This maritime operation occurred in:
(a) Pacific Ocean
(b) South China Sea
(c) Indian Ocean
(d) Bay of Bengal
Analysis:
Philippine President Ferdinand R. Marcos Jr. (known as Bongbong Marcos) conducted a four-day state visit to India, strengthening bilateral relations between the nations.
Three Indian Navy ships participated in their first joint naval exercise with Philippine forces in the South China Sea, marking a significant milestone in India-Philippines maritime cooperation.
This development occurs amid escalating tensions between the Philippines and China over territorial disputes in the South China Sea, where multiple Southeast Asian nations maintain competing territorial claims. The region has witnessed increasing minor clashes between Philippine and Chinese maritime forces.
Correct Answer: (b) South China Sea
Question 4: Historical Territorial Expansion
Which territories constitute the ‘Northern expansion’ of the Marathas?
1. Delhi vicinity
2. Bundelkhand region
3. Malwa territory
4. Rajasthan sections
Select the accurate combination:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Analysis:
Recent controversy emerged regarding NCERT Class 8 social science textbook maps showing Maratha Empire extent in 1759. Chaitanya Raj Singh, representing Jaisalmer’s former royal family, objected to maps depicting Jaisalmer as part of Maratha territory, calling them historically misleading and factually incorrect.
During the early 18th century, as Mughal empire fragmentation accelerated, Peshwa Baji Rao I led Maratha expansion northward. The Marathas already collected tribute from former Mughal territories in the Deccan region.
Maratha forces advanced into Rajasthan sections, Delhi vicinity and Punjab, and Bundelkhand region, while also conducting raids in Orissa, Bengal, and Bihar. They established control over Malwa following the Battle of Bhopal victory. Bengali raids continued under Baji Rao’s successors.
Correct Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 5: African Geography
Which countries share borders with Somalia?
1. Ethiopia
2. Tanzania
3. Sudan
4. Kenya
5. Eritrea
Select the correct combination:
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 5
(d) 2 and 5 only
Analysis:
The Boston Consulting Group (BCG) reportedly developed plans analyzing potential Palestinian relocation from Gaza to various countries including Somalia, as part of regional “redevelopment” initiatives amid ongoing territorial conflicts.
According to Financial Times investigations, BCG received approximately $4 million for this seven-month “relocation” project. One scenario estimated relocating over 500,000 Gazans with $9,000 per person packages, totaling around $5 billion. Gaza’s total population approaches 2 million residents.
Somalia borders three nations: Ethiopia to the west, Djibouti to the northwest, and Kenya to the southwest. Additionally, Somalia has coastlines along the Gulf of Aden (north) and Indian Ocean (east).
Correct Answer: (a) 1 and 4 only
Question 6: International Refugee Framework
Regarding refugees, assess these statements:
Statement A: The UN Convention relating to the Status of Refugees (1951) establishes state obligations for refugee protection and minimum care standards.
Statement B: India signed and ratified the UN Refugee Treaty as a member state.
Statement C: National Human Rights Commission reports indicate India hosts no Myanmar refugees.
How many statements are accurate?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Analysis:
The Supreme Court will determine whether Rohingya populations in India qualify as “refugees” or constitute “illegal entrants.” This classification affects their legal protections, privileges, and rights, as well as potential deportation obligations.
The United Nations defines refugees as individuals forced to flee their countries who cannot return due to well-founded persecution fears based on race, religion, nationality, particular social group membership, or political opinion.
Statement A is correct – The UN Convention relating to the Status of Refugees (1951) establishes state obligations for refugee protection and minimum care standards. This convention has 149 UN member state signatories and ratifications.
According to National Human Rights Commission reports (July 2024), India hosts at least 209,028 refugees from Sri Lanka, Tibet, Myanmar, and Afghanistan. Statement C is incorrect – India definitely hosts Myanmar refugees.
Statement B is incorrect – India remains among 44 UN member states that have not signed the UN refugee treaty. India lacks national refugee legislation, meaning it doesn’t legally recognize refugees or distinguish between refugees and other foreign nationals entering Indian territory.
Correct Answer: (a) Only one
Question 7: Transportation Infrastructure
“Rudrastra” refers to:
(a) Indian Railways’ longest freight train
(b) DRDO-developed indigenous air-to-air missile
(c) Vande Bharat series semi-high-speed passenger train
(d) Indian Navy underwater surveillance system
Analysis:
Indian Railways established a new record by operating the nation’s longest freight train. The Pandit Deen Dayal Upadhyay (DDU) Division of East Central Railway (ECR) undertook this initiative to enhance freight transportation capacity.
The national transporter successfully operated “Rudrastra,” created by combining six empty BOXN rakes, departing from Ganjkhwaja station in the DDU Division. This freight train extends approximately 4.5 kilometers, making it Indian Railways’ longest freight train to date.
Correct Answer: (a) Indian Railways’ longest freight train
Question 8: Regional Trade Agreements
Regarding the Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP), evaluate these statements:
Statement A: RCEP represents a regional free trade agreement between ASEAN countries and Indo-Pacific nations.
Statement B: India maintains RCEP membership.
Statement C: RCEP headquarters operates from Manila, Philippines.
Which statements are accurate?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) None
Analysis:
India’s November 2019 decision to withdraw from Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP) negotiations resulted from policy reconsiderations in New Delhi regarding this mega-regional trade pact representing the most extensive regional trade agreement India had ever negotiated.
Statement A is correct – RCEP constitutes a regional free trade agreement complementing existing free trade agreements with 14 other Indo-Pacific countries.
RCEP became effective January 1, 2022, for ten original parties: Australia, Brunei Darussalam, Cambodia, China, Japan, Laos, New Zealand, Singapore, Thailand, and Vietnam. Subsequently, the Republic of Korea joined February 1, 2022, Malaysia March 18, 2022, Indonesia January 2, 2023, and Philippines June 2, 2023. RCEP represents the world’s largest free trade agreement by member GDP.
Statement B is incorrect – India withdrew from RCEP negotiations in November 2019. The November 15, 2020 Ministerial Declaration on India’s Participation in RCEP states that India may begin accession negotiations anytime after the Agreement’s entry into force.
Statement C is incorrect – RCEP lacks a traditional headquarters with a single physical office. Instead, RCEP operates through the ASEAN Secretariat, RCEP Joint Committee, and other subsidiary bodies.
Correct Answer: (a) 1 only
Question 9: Banking Sector Regulations
What constitutes RBI eligibility criteria for Small Finance Bank (SFB) transition to universal bank status?
1. Scheduled status with satisfactory performance record for minimum two years
2. Stock exchange listing and minimum Rs 1,000 crore net worth (previous quarter audited)
3. Meeting prescribed CRAR requirements for SFBs
4. Net profit in last two financial years and gross NPA/net NPA not exceeding 3%/1% respectively in last two financial years
Select the correct combination:
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Analysis:
The Reserve Bank of India granted ‘in-principle’ approval to AU Small Finance Bank Ltd (AUSFB) for transitioning from small finance bank (SFB) to universal bank status.
Universal bank status enables AU Bank to offer comprehensive financial services and products without the restrictions limiting small finance banks.
According to RBI eligibility criteria, SFB-to-universal bank transition requires scheduled status with satisfactory performance for minimum five years (not two years), stock exchange listing, and minimum Rs 1,000 crore net worth (previous quarter audited). Additional requirements include meeting prescribed CRAR requirements for SFBs, maintaining net profit in the last two financial years, and gross NPA/net NPA not exceeding 3%/1% respectively in the last two financial years.
Statement 1 is incorrect (requires five years, not two), while statements 2, 3, and 4 are correct.
Correct Answer: (d) 2, 3 and 4
Question 10: International Diplomacy
Which country brokered the peace agreement between Azerbaijan and Armenia?
(a) Israel
(b) United States
(c) China
(d) Russia
Analysis:
Azerbaijan and Armenia signed a US-brokered peace agreement during meetings with US President Donald Trump, aimed at enhancing bilateral economic ties following decades of conflict and advancing toward complete relationship normalization.
This agreement between South Caucasus rivals represents a significant Trump administration accomplishment, likely disrupting Moscow’s regional influence given Russia’s traditional sphere of influence in the area.
Armenia and Azerbaijan have maintained adversarial relations since the late 1980s when Nagorno-Karabakh, a mountainous Azerbaijani region with predominantly ethnic Armenian population, separated from Azerbaijan with Armenian support. Azerbaijan regained complete regional control in 2023, prompting approximately 100,000 ethnic Armenians to flee to Armenia.
Correct Answer: (b) United States
Preparation Strategy for Civil Services Examinations
This weekly assessment demonstrates the diverse scope of current affairs essential for competitive examination success. Topics span international relations, scientific applications, maritime strategy, historical analysis, geography, refugee law, infrastructure development, trade agreements, banking regulations, and diplomatic initiatives.
Effective preparation requires consistent engagement with contemporary developments while maintaining analytical understanding rather than mere factual memorization. Focus on interconnections between various subjects and their relevance to India’s national interests and global positioning.
Regular practice through such comprehensive assessments builds confidence and enhances time management skills crucial for competitive examination success.
